A silly question and absolutely no offense meant, but what is the invoice for and why down to one hundredth of a percent? Normally, a contract concluded today that starts in 5 years and then has a fixed interest rate for 15 years should be roughly comparable to concluding one today with a fixed interest rate for 20 years, right? Maybe there is a surcharge for the "service," but the loan amount should be lower because 10 years have already been paid off...