Does the municipality want to purchase shares of my land?!

  • Erstellt am 2018-09-25 11:45:04

freefall

2018-09-25 11:45:04
  • #1
Good day everyone,

I am newly registered in this forum (so far I have only been a silent reader) and I already have my first concern...

I have purchased a single-family house along with three garages and a large garden plot (total area approx. 2400 sqm) in the countryside. We agreed on the price, the purchase contract is signed, and the notary has already "noted" me in the land register since I have already paid 50% of the purchase price (this was agreed with the owner because I am allowed to use the garages as parking spaces and start renovating the upper floor before the actual handover).

The handover and full payment are to take place at the end of October, by then the owner will have moved. In the course of this, I will then also be entered as the owner in the land register.

The incidental costs such as brokerage fees, property transfer tax, registration fees, notary costs, etc. have already been fully paid by me.

Yesterday I received a letter from the notary requesting my signature on a consent form allowing a copy of the purchase contract to be handed over to the relevant district.
When I asked the notary, I was informed that the municipality intends to exercise its right of first refusal for a part of the property.
The garden ends at a small stream, and in this part of the garden there is a building restriction due to possible flooding – this was already entered in the land register over 70 years ago.

The municipality now intends, according to Article 39 of the BayNatSchG, to exercise the right of first refusal for about 700 sqm of the garden. This is not just a small area next to the stream, but a considerable part of the garden that I actually wanted to use partly as a wild meadow and partly as a cultivation area for vegetables for self-sufficiency.
According to the municipality, this has already been decided by the municipal council, meaning I apparently have no way to oppose it.

Does anyone have experience with this?
For me, this "forced sale" would mean a significant reduction of the remaining property together with the house; after all, one does not buy a house with a large garden for no reason...
The market value of the land will probably be very low, as it is ultimately a "flood zone" in the countryside.

Actually, I would like to withdraw from the purchase, but I have already started with the renovation.

Do I have the possibility to receive some kind of "compensation" from the seller or the municipality? After all, the usability value of the property has now been greatly reduced for me.

What about the incidental costs already incurred and those still to be incurred; will the municipality take over those, or do I remain responsible for them?

I am grateful for any help!
 

montessalet

2018-09-25 11:48:28
  • #2
Wasn't the municipality's right of first refusal registered in the land register?
 

nordanney

2018-09-25 12:41:16
  • #3
It is a statutory right of first refusal that every municipality has for every sale. @TE: If nothing is stated in the purchase contract, it is probably pP.
 

montessalet

2018-09-25 12:44:47
  • #4


I know that for entire properties. But for parts?
 

Nordlys

2018-09-25 12:57:12
  • #5
Market value does not matter. In case of a right of first refusal, the municipality has to pay the former owner the price they would get from you. That means the deal will be significantly cheaper for you, for example, 2400 sqm including a house costs you 600,000. The municipality now wants 600 sqm through the right of first refusal. That is 25%, or 150,000 less for you. Please discuss this with the notary.
 

freefall

2018-09-25 13:18:39
  • #6
First of all, thank you very much for the quick responses.





No, as nordanney has already correctly pointed out, this is a legally established right of first refusal that exists under certain conditions (in this case Art. 39 BayNatSchG).





I unfortunately cannot make anything of the abbreviation pP, except that I have something with "perge perge" — Latin class was a long time ago — in mind. Could you please explain this to me in more detail?





Is the calculation really that simple? The notary did not want to comment on this at first. Honestly, I doubt that the municipality is willing to pay 25% of the purchase price for the plot.


If I have understood correctly, it proceeds as follows: The municipality steps into the purchase contract instead of me for the entire property including the single-family house, pays the full purchase price. Subsequently, there is a new purchase contract between me and the municipality for the property including the single-family house etc. without the 600 sqm meadow. I then have to negotiate the value for the meadow with the municipality, is that correct?


The question about the ancillary costs that have already been incurred still arises for me; will these then be borne by the municipality? I have already paid these and would also have to pay them again in the course of the new purchase contract.
 

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