Baukindergeld - Does it no longer have to be the first property ever acquired?

  • Erstellt am 2020-10-22 15:26:10

nanu89

2020-10-22 15:26:10
  • #1
Hello everyone,

I had completely written off the topic of Baukindergeld for us, but now a (very small) spark of hope has flared up again.

We cannot claim the grant because we already own a residential property. That was crystal clear to me until now.

but: Now I read the following on the kfw website under the point "Who do we support?": "Your new home is your only residential property as of the key date." Nothing about the clause that it has to be the first property. Also, in the preliminary check there is no question about whether it is the first property ever purchased. Only:
"Yes, my new home is my only residential property as of the key date." If I remember correctly, it was different in the past. Has something actually been changed? Or am I hoping for nothing? (Currently, it is the case that we have bought a new house and signed the notarized contract, move-in next year. Our current house is already sold, and we will move out next year)

Best regards
nanu89
 

aero2016

2020-10-22 19:12:37
  • #2
The regulation has been like this from the beginning. It does not have to be the first property of one's life. Only the one currently owned.
 

seat88

2020-10-22 19:17:38
  • #3
I would argue against that. It was said [Ersterwerb]...
 

aero2016

2020-10-22 19:40:46
  • #4
First acquisition means the first property in (current) ownership. Not the very first ever in life.
 

nanu89

2020-10-22 21:17:34
  • #5
That is the big question
 

Bautitus

2020-10-22 21:20:04
  • #6
The question is rather in which order was bought and sold. The decisive date is the signed purchase agreement.
 
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