Perhaps also the question of whether you are using black money that the tax office does not know about ...
I can clearly answer that with no.
My impression is rather that based on the known financial data, they are asking where the money for the purchase comes from.
Do you have special circumstances like self-employment, just started working (=low income according to previous tax returns) or something like that?
The tax office probably wants to check whether there is wealth/income they did not know about so far ...
Both have been employed at the same company for 10+ years.
Hello Superaggy
Usually not. Obviously, there is an overzealous tax officer trying to save the world.
Just take a look at the § cited as justification. If it does not explain the matter, ask for the exact legal basis for this inquiry. Usually, something like “then I decide based on the file” comes up. That then means, “I just tried it.”
The tax office simply has no business to know how you finance your property/house.
Steven
I will take another look at the paragraph. Let's see.
That is not quite correct.
If the previous income is not high enough to expect a lot of equity and no gift has been taxed at the tax office so far, but the property is acquired without a land charge in return, then of course it is obvious to think that some taxable event regarding income or gift tax was concealed. It is no coincidence that the letter refers to the tax returns.
However, it may turn out that the equity brought in is not own equity, but an interest-free loan from the parents.
We are using 15% equity. I also now count the interest-free loan from the parents-in-law as part of that. The notary also applied directly for the land charge, otherwise the bank would not pay out money. The only thing that might possibly be seen as unusual is that we are not married. Only I was contacted.
Thank you all for the much feedback.