Manon Winter
2017-03-03 11:34:20
- #1
Good day,
my friend built a house 12 years ago and, of course, financed it. Yesterday, he included me in the contract. That means, if something happens to him, everything will transfer to me. (The house still has to be paid off for 9 years at the current time). Now my question is: This is not really legally correct, is it? I am not an heir and would therefore not inherit the house, right? The situation is this. My friend has no family left, except for some half-siblings somewhere, whom he has never met and does not know if they are still alive, if they had/have children or anything like that. As far as I know, these half-siblings would still become heirs. Does having my name in the financing have any legal value? Or does he additionally have to create a will? If anyone could help us with this, we would be grateful. :-)
Thank you very much in advance!
Best regards M. Winter
my friend built a house 12 years ago and, of course, financed it. Yesterday, he included me in the contract. That means, if something happens to him, everything will transfer to me. (The house still has to be paid off for 9 years at the current time). Now my question is: This is not really legally correct, is it? I am not an heir and would therefore not inherit the house, right? The situation is this. My friend has no family left, except for some half-siblings somewhere, whom he has never met and does not know if they are still alive, if they had/have children or anything like that. As far as I know, these half-siblings would still become heirs. Does having my name in the financing have any legal value? Or does he additionally have to create a will? If anyone could help us with this, we would be grateful. :-)
Thank you very much in advance!
Best regards M. Winter