Does previous residence refer to interest??

Hello everyone,

we (my girlfriend and I) went to the bank yesterday and got an offer for a construction loan. The banker noticed that the interest rate would be better if we had a shared previous residence.
The end result; my girlfriend is supposed to "register" with me (residence).
That seemed very strange to me, and if it’s not absolutely necessary, it’s unnecessary extra effort.
Is it possible that this actually affects the interest rate?:cool:

best regards Oscar123

I'm hardly surprised by anything anymore, but this is complete nonsense. So either the fact that it has an effect or the request for this nonsense. With that, the "consultant/saleswoman" is "cheating" the own evaluation process. What kind of difference are we talking about here? I would check her pulse. That sounds more like a broker than a bank.

Whether the factor you mentioned is included in this bank's scoring procedure can probably only be answered by a handful of people within the bank (who are familiar with the score in detail).

Possible? Yes.

If(!) this criterion is even included in the score, according to the score developers it will also "separate," meaning it will make a difference in the score that is valid. Then the bank advisor should of course not suggest an approach to circumvent this. Due to this consulting "service," at least this advisor would be out for me. Whether the entire bank should be is something you have to decide.

I agree with toxi. The "consultant" is treading on thin ice. Yes, you can advise by saying more equity so that the interest rate improves, but not fundamental things like "Just get employed quickly on a 450 € basis or just change your registration quickly."

Here I would look for another broker.

It may be that the "Beraterin" (who is more of a salesperson) behaved incorrectly towards her employer. I cannot see any damage to the potential customer, so I would not turn my back on her for that reason. Nevertheless, one should obtain comparative offers.