Osttexas
2021-03-10 19:20:44
- #1
Hello everyone,
I am a complete beginner when it comes to homeownership and have so far only read the "Stern Guide: In 10 Steps to Your Own Home" (it was available in the library as a handy e-book – easily accessible during lockdown times). And somewhere I have to start asking...
I believe I have understood by now that the first step involving "external" persons when building or buying a house is going to the financer or bank.
Furthermore, I think I have understood that you should ideally get a preliminary financing commitment, which does not yet apply to a specific property but is initially a commitment that at the time of issue the bank would provide a loan up to a certain amount. With this, you could quickly convince the seller that you are also able to seriously carry out the purchase.
Normally, one assumes 20 or 25 percent equity. However, I would assume that we would go into the race with significantly more equity (concrete numbers perhaps later, if I haven’t completely embarrassed myself here). Now to the question: For what amount should one get the commitment? Or does the bank offer a maximum amount based on the monthly net income anyway, which you would not later draw on in full? (I suppose the exact conditions are only revealed with the concrete commitment?)
I can imagine that banks could well have their own interests: If they themselves broker real estate, they might try to push you into buying an overpriced and possibly unnecessarily large property in order to additionally take a commission. And a high loan granted also means for them that they have to pay less negative interest on their deposits and instead generate regular interest income. If that is the case, then it is not automatically illegitimate, but it could lead to an advisory conversation resulting in a different outcome than I would wish.
Now, you could tell the banker directly that such a large loan is not necessary. Possibly, I don’t know, I would then receive a document stating a much lower amount committed. But then again, a potential seller would still need to be convinced that the commitment does not mean that I am unable to make the purchase, but that the remaining money will come from equity, which presumably would not appear in the commitment.
So: Is there a good practice for this question? Or an almost mandatory procedure? Or would the banker advise me neutrally anyway if I ask them directly?
Thanks in advance!
I am a complete beginner when it comes to homeownership and have so far only read the "Stern Guide: In 10 Steps to Your Own Home" (it was available in the library as a handy e-book – easily accessible during lockdown times). And somewhere I have to start asking...
I believe I have understood by now that the first step involving "external" persons when building or buying a house is going to the financer or bank.
Furthermore, I think I have understood that you should ideally get a preliminary financing commitment, which does not yet apply to a specific property but is initially a commitment that at the time of issue the bank would provide a loan up to a certain amount. With this, you could quickly convince the seller that you are also able to seriously carry out the purchase.
Normally, one assumes 20 or 25 percent equity. However, I would assume that we would go into the race with significantly more equity (concrete numbers perhaps later, if I haven’t completely embarrassed myself here). Now to the question: For what amount should one get the commitment? Or does the bank offer a maximum amount based on the monthly net income anyway, which you would not later draw on in full? (I suppose the exact conditions are only revealed with the concrete commitment?)
I can imagine that banks could well have their own interests: If they themselves broker real estate, they might try to push you into buying an overpriced and possibly unnecessarily large property in order to additionally take a commission. And a high loan granted also means for them that they have to pay less negative interest on their deposits and instead generate regular interest income. If that is the case, then it is not automatically illegitimate, but it could lead to an advisory conversation resulting in a different outcome than I would wish.
Now, you could tell the banker directly that such a large loan is not necessary. Possibly, I don’t know, I would then receive a document stating a much lower amount committed. But then again, a potential seller would still need to be convinced that the commitment does not mean that I am unable to make the purchase, but that the remaining money will come from equity, which presumably would not appear in the commitment.
So: Is there a good practice for this question? Or an almost mandatory procedure? Or would the banker advise me neutrally anyway if I ask them directly?
Thanks in advance!